How do you define the 'Ordinances' of Ephesians 2:15 and Colossians 2:14 which where abolished at the cross?

 

The word "ordinances" in the above passages does not refer to God's law, the Ten Commandments; for we know that "where no law is, there is no transgression," (Romans 4:15 ) and the Ten Commandments are for the specific purpose of defining sin. This law which defines sin is described by Paul as being as "holy, and the commandment holy and just and good" (Romans 7:12 ). Since sin did not cease to exist after the cross, just as it was the case before the cross, then the Ten Commandments were still in full force after the ascension of Christ to heaven, as they were before His incarnation. "But sin is not imputed when there is not law" (Romans 5:13 ). No wonder that we find much said about sin and sinners in the New Testament as it was the case in the Old Testament.

 

The word "ordinances" is translated from the Greek word dogma and is used to refer to judgments and decrees. These ordinances could be issued by both religious and civil officials. Let us now examine the different context for the usage of "ordinances" in each of above two references:

 

Ephesians 2:14, 15

"For He Himself is our peace, who has made both one, and has broken down the middle wall of separation, having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances, so as to create in Himself one new man from the two, thus making peace" (NKJV)

The "law of commandments contained in ordinances" is defined by Paul as "the enmity" and the "middle wall of separation". This rules out God's law, the Ten Commandments, which has never been described in that way. Just read the whole of Psalms 119 , which is a love song about His law. "Oh, how I love Your law! It is my meditation all the day" (Psalms 119:97 ). To know therefore what is meant by the "law of commandments in ordinances" we must look elsewhere, away from the Ten Commandments. The answer is found in the following words of Christ:

"Thus have ye made the commandment of God of none effect by your tradition. Ye hypocrites, well did Esaias prophesy of you, saying, This people draweth nigh unto me with their mouth, and honoureth me with their lips; but their heart is far from me. But in vain they do worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men" (Matthew 15:6-9).

It is the "commandments of men" which burdened the Jews, and soured the relations between Jews and Gentiles. These man-made commandments created feelings of prejudice and animosity and separation between the Jews and Gentiles. But it was by His sacrifice that Jesus was able to abolish the barrier between them, and bring the two together again.

Colossians 2:13,14

And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses; Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross."

Here Paul is reminding the Colossians that the "handwriting of ordinances" (i.e., the long list of hand written decrees and obligations) which you as sinners had to perform ceremonially when you had committed sins, are no longer required; for the sacrifice of Jesus Christ has "wiped out" all these former obligations which pertained to the ceremonial rites and obligations, like the Passover and various holy days and meat offerings and drink offerings, et cetera. These obligations were all written down by Moses and are generally described by Bible writers as the Law of Moses, which is not to be confused with God's law, the Ten Commandments.The ceremonial like pointed to Christ and His sacrifice. They were a type of Christ. Once Christ was offered as the ultimate sacrifice for the sinner, they are not longer required. They have been fulfilled as type in Christ, the anti-type.

 

Additional Reading:

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written by Ted Twitchell, December 22, 2008
I don't follow why the Ten Commandments don't provide a wall of separation between Pagans and Jews. Pagans worshipped false gods, which would go against the first commandment. They had idols. A violation of the second. They observed Sunday, breaking the Sabbath. However, the Mosaic law asserts that one should do things like; marry and multiply,to pay someone you have hired to work for you, to make your house a safe place so no one gets hurt,not to inflict suffering on widows or orphans etc. I don't think that pagans would have necessarily been opposed to keeping these laws. There are obviously many laws which do provide a wall of separation between Jews and pagans, but it seems like the baby is being thrown out with the bath water. What am I missing here?

Isn't it the purpose, rather than the defintition; of the "law of commandments contained in ordinances" is enmity, and providing a middle wall of separation.
6387
ordinances abolished at the cross
written by Ted Twitchell, December 17, 2008
I see how the ceremonial laws and obligations were done away at the cross, but the Law of Moses includes a number of other laws that seem quite practical. I'm assuming those wouldn't be done away with? I can see how on some level the Passover is done away with. Paul says that Christ is our passover, but what I don't understand is why he then says 'therefore let us keep the feast' Why?

I've also noticed that the laws of sacrifice, with the exception of one in the book of numbers, are concerned with unintentional sins. The remedy for intentional sins was never covered by sacrifice. This would seem to suggest that Christ's sacrifice didn't cover all sin, which is an obvious contradiction of what Paul says. I don't know how to reconcile this.

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